I will try to keep this as short as possible. Situation Family member owns 197 acres Minerals and surface. Leases mineral rights on 197 acres. Then sells two 53 acre tracts off the surface, with no mention of the lease or giving mineral rights to the new surface owner in either of the deeds. Without mentioning the mineral rights lease how is this perceived. Did he loose the leases and mineral rights on the land he sold or does the lease supersede the sale. Any help would be appreciated